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Old 07-10-2014, 07:52 PM   #8
Out of Shape
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Join Date: Jul 2006
Location: Rochester, NY
Posts: 1,847
I recall reading somewhere that often when rail lines were put in, it required the use of eminent domain or some other legal hurdle. Not that the actual legal principle involved is important (or maybe it is), but in some cases the easement/takeover for use by the State specifically for use as a rail. If the lines are removed, I read, in some cases depending on the deed, etc... the land would revert back to the original owners. I am sure all the legal eagles have looked into this. Could one imagine the clusterf___ if they removed the rail lines and then the property owners barred public use (which would be their right if the land in question actually did revert back.)
"There's a whisper on the night-wind, there's a star agleam to guide us, And the Wild is calling, calling . . . let us go." -from "The Call of the Wild" by Robert Service

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